Follow up Letter to Hank Hanegraaff

CRI International
P.O. Box 8500
Charlotte, NC 28271-8500

Mr. Hanegraaff,
I would like to continue exposing your denial of the promises and prophecy that are clearly written and directed toward physical Israel. I have to say that your denials of the many promises to physical Israel are so blatant and are so flagrant that they actually remind me of a thing called "Holocaust denial"! I don't know if you yourself is a Holocaust denier, but I do know that you and the Holocaust deniers of the world are united in viewing anything that might benefit modern physical Israel as a bad thing.

As I pointed out in my last letter, there is a spiritual reason as to why you can even think about supporting the Hamas-electing, 9/11-rejoicing, Palestinians over the peaceful, free democratic, America-supporting Israelis. I know your Hamas-electing Palestinian buddies are real big into Holocaust denying, and like you, would certainly deny any scripture that promises physical Israel a glorious future and they certainly would deny any scripture that refers to physical Israel still being God's chosen people.

In addition to exposing your denial of physical Israel being part of the literal reading of prophecy from the Hebrew prophets who was writing to their own Hebrew people, I would like to show your actual denial of the New Testament scriptures as they also testify of physical Israel.

Let me begin by asking: How did the Apostle Paul perceive physical Israel of his day? Did he believed that God had something spiritual in store for the physical nation of Israel in the future from the present time he was living in? Based upon your support of the Palestinian (Hamas-electing) views, you see Paul viewing anything labeled “Israel” as something in a spiritual (non-physical) sense. However, there are some things within Paul’s letters that reveal his belief towards a future spiritual revival that would take place among physical Israel as a whole without any Gentile influence.

There is no doubt that Paul taught a “spiritual Israel” message for the believing Christians, (Galatians 6:16) in order for them to have something that unites them with the God of Israel, but did that teaching of spiritual Israel for the Gentile Christians (as well as believing Jews - Eph. 2:14) cause Paul to believe that the natural offspring of Jacob (Jews) hold no special calling from God even after the church began at Pentecost? First, we need to ask ourselves: According to dispensational time, when was it that the Jews first began their “blindness”? Then we must eventually ask, "when were they "all" saved?

Even so then, at this present time there is a remnant according to the election of grace. And if by grace, then it is no longer of works; otherwise grace is no longer grace. But if it is of works, it is no longer grace; otherwise work is no longer work. What then? Israel has not obtained what it seeks; but the elect have obtained it, and the rest were blinded.
- Romans 11:5-7
If I understand this New Testament verse, the Jews weren’t blinded until after a dispensation of “grace” (meaning after Jesus’ death, burial, resurrection, and the beginning of the church at Pentecost) where some of the Jews of physical-Israel believed in Jesus, as Paul states of himself (Romans 11:1).

The other physical Jews who did not receive Jesus were described by Paul as being "blinded". Paul states that there is a remnant according to the election of grace. Exactly, who is it that makes up this particular “remnant” that Paul mentions here? Is this "remnant" that Paul states in Romans 11:5 made up and consists of:

1. Only Gentiles.
   
2. Jews and Gentiles together.
   
3. Only Jews from physical Israel.
   

We are able to answer this question by going to the beginning of the chapter and staying with (not deviating one little bit) the context all the way through without injecting some spiritual meaning that Paul simply didn’t place within the context.

I say then, has God cast away His people? Certainly not! For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin. God has not cast away His people whom He foreknew. Or do you not know what the Scripture says of Elijah, how he pleads with God against Israel, saying, "LORD, they have killed Your prophets and torn down Your altars, and I alone am left, and they seek my life"? But what does the divine response say to him? "I have reserved for Myself seven thousand men who have not bowed the knee to Baal." Romans 11:1-4
Again, this verse is laying the foundation for the lesson Paul is about to give throughout the eleventh chapter of the book of Romans. Of the three things that Paul mentions in this verse: “His people”, “Israelite“, “tribe of Benjamin”, do any of these things have anything at all to do with, or referred to in anyway towards "Gentiles" in the text? If not, then would it not be fair to say that the main subject behind this text as well as the whole chapter, is indeed "physical Israel" and their relationship with God and the Gentiles?

In other words, can we conclude that there is no “spiritual Israel” doctrine among the eleventh chapter of Romans? I think we can.

I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles.- Romans 11:11
That was verse eleven - almost a third way through the entire chapter. Is there anything at all in this verse that would suggest that the ones referred to as the ones fallen, have anything at all to do with A. Gentiles alone, or B. with Gentiles and Jews together? I would say not. Therefore, from a simple reading of the text, we can conclude that Paul is exclusively singling-out “physical Israel” as the ones who have fallen, Amen?

Now if their fall is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness! For I speak to you Gentiles; inasmuch as I am an apostle to the Gentiles, I magnify my ministry, if by any means I may provoke to jealousy those who are my flesh and save some of them. For if their being cast away is the reconciling of the world, what will their acceptance be but life from the dead? - Romans 11: 12-15
Question: Does the pronouns of “their fall”, “their failure”, “their fullness” “those of Paul’s flesh”, and “their acceptance” have anything at all to do with A. Gentiles, or B. with Jews and Gentiles together? Again, I would say not! Therefore, from a simple reading of the text, we can conclude that Paul is still continuing to exclusively singling-out “physical Israel” in this given text.

This brings us to the next statement within the above text and causes me to wonder why Paul saw “physical Israel’s acceptance” to be more of a greater spiritual event than the Gentile acceptance? Why should physical Israel’s acceptance be any different than the Gentile’s acceptance when its all “spiritual Israel” now, right Mr. Hanegraaff? Then we must ask ourselves: Was Paul looking towards the future for this “life from the dead” causing acceptance to occur, or did this “life from the dead” causing acceptance occur sometime in Paul’s lifetime, perhaps before 70 CE?

For if the firstfruit is holy, the lump is also holy; and if the root is holy, so are the branches. And if some of the branches were broken off, and you, being a wild olive tree, were grafted in among them, and with them became a partaker of the root and fatness of the olive tree, do not boast against the branches. But if you do boast, remember that you do not support the root, but the root supports you. You will say then, "Branches were broken off that I might be grafted in." Well said. Because of unbelief they were broken off, and you stand by faith. Do not be haughty, but fear. For if God did not spare the natural branches, He may not spare you either. - Romans 11:16-21
It should be clear from a simple reading of the text that Paul is still making a complete distinction between "physical Israel" and the Gentiles, and is in no way mixing the two by placing the “believing Gentiles” into the “natural branches” or placing “physical Israel” into the “wild branches”. In Paul’s view, both Jew and Gentile can share the same root, but are very distinct in their "category of branch" - one being called the “wild olive branch“, while the other is called a “natural olive branch”. There is a reason why Paul is making this distinction between Jew and Gentile and we will see in the following verses.

For if you were cut out of the olive tree which is wild by nature, and were grafted contrary to nature into a cultivated olive tree, how much more will these, who are natural branches, be grafted into their own olive tree? - Romans 11:24
Question Mr. Hanegraaff: Who are the words “these“, “natural branches“, and “their own olive tree” referring to? Again, is there any chance at all that these words are referring to A. the Gentiles alone, or B. to both Jews and Gentiles together? Is the last sentence in this verse 24 (above) referring to physical-Israel alone? Some Christian Zionists who see the Palestinians for the Islamic religious-Nazis that they are, seem to think so. While Zionism-haters will find it very difficult in coming to grips that Paul was singling out "physical Israel" in the text. However, one must be able to grasp what Paul is stating about only “physical Israel” if we wish to understand the Paul's spiritual revelation towards "physical Israel" in the following three verses of the text.

For I do not desire, brethren, that you should be ignorant of this mystery, lest you should be wise in your own opinion, that blindness in part has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in. And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written: "The Deliverer will come out of Zion, And He will turn away ungodliness from Jacob; For this is My covenant with them, When I take away their sins." - Romans 11:25-27
Was Paul referring that blindness has happened in part to “spiritual Israel”? No? I wouldn’t think that Paul would be stating that “spiritual Israel” is "blinded" for that wouldn’t make any sense. Therefore, by continuing and staying with the flow of the context concerning "physical Israel" can we conclude that Paul is referring to “all Israel” as the same “Israel” who was “blinded in part” in the prior sentence? If not, please tell me where in the text that the subject of "Israel" was switched from being “natural Israel” to being “spiritual Israel” between the first and second sentence while maintaining the flow of the context.

Do you think that it is possible that the word “until” that is used in this text here actually blinds the “blindness in part-Israel” with the “all-saved Israel” as an “in part-until-all" or “partial-until-full” complete thought? Can we then further conclude that the prophecy of “Jacob” that is mentioned in the same sentence as “all Israel being saved”, (that Paul is using as a proof text for his message) is being used as a term for what we know as “physical Israel” and that it has absolutely nothing to do with “spiritual Israel”?

Therefore, can we conclude that by using Paul’s text that he has interpreted for his readers, who it is that is being referred to in the prophecy he quoted? In other words, if Paul viewed the prophecy of Isaiah 59: 20-21 as only pertaining to "physical Israel" then no Christian should have any quarrel with Paul’s interpretation that Isaiah 59: 20-21 refers only to "physical Israel."

Fact: We have the author of most of the New Testament referring to Isaiah 59:20-21 as a direct reference to the physical nation of Israel - the physical Jewish people, who Paul believed as a whole was currently "spiritually blind" when Paul wrote what we know as the Book of Romans. There is no other reference throughout the entire New Testament where it links Isaiah 59:20-21 to the "Gentiles" only, or the Gentiles and Jews together. It just isn't there!
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One can further conclude that anyone suggesting that Isaiah 59:20,21 may have some “spiritual Israel” to it, would be a direct violation of how Paul himself interpreted that scripture in Romans 11:25-27! I want to make sure we have it down given the distinction that Paul used leading up to interpreting Isaiah 59:20,21 between "physical Israel" and "the Gentiles" during the whole chapter of Romans 11. I'm not adding some “physical Israel” doctrine into the text that’s simply not there, but on the contrary, you Mr. Hanegraaff “must” conclude that this scripture of Isaiah 59:20-21 “only” refers to “physical Israel". Therefore, any Christian can study Isaiah 59:20-21 with confidence in knowing that this scripture is referring to "physical Israel" and physical Israel alone in accordance to the direct teaching of the Apostle Paul!
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They can further compare other such scriptures of prophecy of "physical Israel" with Isaiah 59:20-21. Surely, if there is one scripture among the Hebrew prophets that in Paul’s mind, dealt with "only" physical Israel, then there are others as well? Isaiah 59:20-21 wouldn't be the only scripture among the Hebrew prophets that pertains to only physical Israel. Another Hebrew-prophet scripture that compares greatly with Isaiah 59:20-21 is Ezekiel 37:25. This scripture might be an indication that it too (as Paul suggested of Isaiah 59:20-21) is only "physical Israel" oriented. Let's compare the two Hebrew prophet produced scriptures in wording and in vision:

The Redeemer will come to Zion, And to those who turn from transgression in Jacob," Says YHVH."As for Me," says YHVH, "this is My covenant with them: My Spirit who is upon you, and My words which I have put in your mouth, shall not depart from your mouth, nor from the mouth of your descendants, nor from the mouth of your descendants' descendants," says YHVH, "from this time and forevermore." - Isaiah 59:20-21

Compared with
"Then they shall dwell in the land that I have given to Jacob My servant, where your fathers dwelt; and they shall dwell there, they, their children, and their children's children, forever; and My servant David shall be their prince forever.
-Ezekiel 37:25
Since Paul taught that a redeemer would come unto Zion to the "blinded - in part" physical Israel ones so that “all” of "physical Israel" could be saved, in the future tense (after the fullness of the Gentiles has come in) the question should come up as to what physical land will this "physical Israel" of Isaiah 59:20-21 be saved?

In my last letter I pointed out that Ezekiel 37 deals with "physical Israel" and the physical land of Canaan. In comparing Ezekiel 37:21-28 with Isaiah 59:20-21 any question of doubt as to whether God still has a covenant with Jacob that includes Jacob's physical descendants and the physical land God gave Jacob, can surely be answered. Since according to the Isaiah text (that Paul referenced) "physical Israel" is to have generation after generation of holy righteous Jews living in Israel after her redemption. Maybe your Allah-loving Palestinians need to leave this physical - prophesied land to make way for this future glorious redemption (that Paul referred to) that is to take place?

Mr. Hanegraaff, have an anti-Hamas supporting day, knowing the the God of Israel still has His everlasting Covenant with His first born (Exodus 4:22)!
- Joe Whitehead

Letter to Hank Hanegraaff

CRI International
P.O. Box 8500
Charlotte, NC 28271-8500

Mr. Hanegraaff,
What is it with you Replacement Theologists? Are the Jews that are living in Israel, and most especially Jerusalem threatening your “replacement-doctrine”? Have they so much threatened your doctrine that you have resorted to favoring and even spiritually supporting the Hamas-electing (Nazi) Palestinians when it comes to the status of Jerusalem? To me, such favoritism for such an anti-Semite, devil-possessed people, can only come from a anti-Semite source itself! Your doctrine speaks louder than any formal denial of anti-Semitism Mr. Hanegraaff.

Your hypocrisy as a Christian over the status of Jerusalem is quite overwhelming when one considers the fact that the Palestinians are the keepers of the Muslim shrine that now sits upon Solomon’s temple mount bearing Koranic verses in Arabic, proclaiming to all Christendom that God has no son and that the sonship of Jesus and the Trinity are false, while the Israeli Jews are allowing a huge multi-million dollar Christian Heritage Center to be built within their Jewish country. This is something that would never occur in any Muslim country, and it most certainly would never happen in your sought after Palestinian state. Based upon your replacement-doctrine, you had rather see the terrorist Palestinians rule Jerusalem (who jumped for joy at the news of 9/11) than to see God fulfill His convent to the Jews!

On August 3rd. of this year I heard you instruct a caller named Martha that Jesus was now the "land of Israel" thereby causing the Jews to no longer have any biblical ties to the land or most importantly, over Jerusalem. You even went as far as using Joshua 21:43 as your proof-text to back up your Israel-is-only-history claim. Are you really that naïve towards the Jewish scriptures Mr. Hanegraaff, or do you simply hate God’s eternal covenant with the Jewish people?

O seed of Abraham His servant, You children of Jacob, His chosen ones! He is YHVH our God; His judgments are in all the earth. He remembers His covenant forever, The word which He commanded, for a thousand generations, The covenant which He made with Abraham, And His oath to Isaac, and confirmed it to Jacob for a statute, To Israel as an everlasting covenant, Saying, "To you I will give the land of Canaan As the allotment of your inheritance," - Psalms 105:6-11

Thus says YHVH, Who gives the sun for a light by day, The ordinances of the moon and the stars for a light by night, Who disturbs the sea, And its waves roar (YHVH of hosts is His name): "If those ordinances depart From before Me, says YHVH, Then the seed of Israel shall also cease From being a nation before Me forever." Thus says YHVH: "If heaven above can be measured, And the foundations of the earth searched out beneath, I will also cast off all the seed of Israel For all that they have done, says YHVH. - Jeremiah 31: 35-37

Did you notice the words, "for all that they have done" in that last verse? That means the same ones that did the sinning to begin with is who this promise is to, and not some future sinful "spiritual Israel" that consist of gentiles!
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Let me ask you Mr. Hanegraaff, which of the two nations did you come out of when you became a believer in Christ? What, you don’t understand this question? It is a trick question. However, since you insist on spiritualizing and replacing all of the physical promises to Israel as promises to the Church, the question shouldn’t be too difficult for you to answer for a Bible reader and Bible answer person like yourself, that is if you can bring yourself to account for all the holy printed words of Ezekiel 37:21-28. This holy text from the prophet Ezekiel just so happens to be written long after your proof text of Joshua 21:43 or any other proof text you might wish to use such as Joshua 21:43-45, 1 Kings 4:21, 1 Kings 8:56, 2 Chronicles 9:26, and Nehemiah 9:7-8, 24.

The prophecies contained within the book of Ezekiel that pertain to the physical Jewish nation are prophesied not only for a later time than those scriptures that you might try to use to show no further prophecy for Israel, but are to be fulfilled only during the messianic age to come, that never ends! That, my Replacement Theologist, rules out (without a doubt) the prophecies in Ezekiel being fulfilled during the Babylonian return!

The question for Replacement Theologist like yourself and your spiritual partner Colin Chapman is whether the subject of Ezekiel 37:21-28 is spiritual, physical, are both? If Ezekiel 37:21-28 has even the smallest element of relating to anything physical, then it would be quite ignorant on your part not to be a pro-active Christian Zionist. If your claim is that Ezekiel 37:21-28 only consist in a spiritual form for the believer in Christ, then my question again is: From which of the two nations (Israel or Judah) did you come out of, to be joined into one stick (as a believer) whereby you will never be part of one of two nations anymore? Isn't that what the Word of God text directly states? Therefore, I would like to know the answer to that question based upon the word of God, that in your mind has switched from being totally physical (pertaining to Israel) to totally spiritual (pertaining to you, the believer).

A more to the point question is: Can you honestly read Ezekiel 37:21-28 that was written by exiled Hebrew prophet, in the Hebrew language, for the exiled Hebrew people to read, and still claim that the promises that are contained therein have nothing whatsoever to do with the physical exiled Hebrew people? Can you honestly do that Mr. Henegraaff without even a pause of thought that what you are doing by injecting such a replacement-doctrine into a given context of scripture is indeed altering the meaning of God's holy words from their original context of the anointed Hebrew Prophet Ezekiel while willfully disregarding God's direct promises to His chosen people that is contained within the anointed heaven-breathed text?
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Allow me to dissect Ezekiel 37:21-28 verse by verse for you from just what is written therein and how it relates to physical Israel’s history. As I do this, it will become very evident that by trying to paint a “spiritual-only” scene from such a clear text is to make the Hebrew prophet Ezekiel a lair and a false prophet to his Hebrew people to whom he wrote and preached to in his day, and for Hebrew generations that were to follow.

V. 21 And say unto them, Thus saith YHVH GOD; Behold, I will take the children of Israel from among the heathen, whither they be gone, and will gather them on every side, and bring them into their own land:
From the first four words on this verse it is evident that God has commanded Ezekiel to say something to someone but just who is that someone he is to speak to? To answer that question we need only to go up three verses to verse 18 where God tells Ezekiel “And when the children of thy people shall speak unto thee, saying, Wilt thou not shew us what thou meanest by these? Say unto them..” Therefore, it is clear that Ezekiel’s message is directed at “the children of his people” So we must then ask ourselves: “Are these “children of his people” whom he spoke to, spiritual or physical Israel?” The answer to this question really lays the whole foundation as to whether or not the entire following context of prophecy should be applied to physical Israel (the children of Ezekiel's people) or some "spiritual Israel" that would included people from every nation that are not children of Ezekiel's people.
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Since the physical children of Israel, (including Ezekiel himself) was placed into exile “among the heathen” when Ezekiel wrote this verse, (21) does this verse have anything at all to do with physical Israel being gathered? Can one "connect the dots" (as in 2 plus 2 equals 4) and plainly see that Ezekiel wanted the children of his present exiled people to know that a "gathering" for a return to the land from where they were presently exiled from would in their physical future? Isn't that a real simple Bible question?

And what is this “into their own land” business doing in this verse? Was God referring to the land of Canaan as belonging to physical Israel as He was saying “into their own land” to His prophet Ezekiel? Wasn’t God concerned about the Palestinians and their claim to the land as you and your good spiritual buddy Colin Chapman are? In other words, Mr. Hanegraaff, is it possible to obtain from this one verse (21) that the God who made the statement “in their own land” was in fact decreeing that the land of Canaan belongs to the same ones who are gathered from the heathens (in the text) and not some squatting, Jew-hating Palestinians who, by the way, claim that they are now God’s chosen “replacement” people, according to sura 3:110 of their Koran? I mean, isn't that amazing how you and the Palestinians that you support claim to be the "replacement people"? You use your New Testament and your terrorist so-called Palestinians use their Koran for the same Jew Chosen People denial doctrine and goal!

V.22 And I will make them one nation in the land upon the mountains of Israel; and one king shall be king to them all: and they shall be no more two nations, neither shall they be divided into two kingdoms any more at all:
Why doesn’t this verse it say “ the land upon the mountains of Palestine”? Since physical Israel’s history contains an ancient past from the time this verse was written of having two kingdoms, each one having their own king, is there any chance at all that this verse is talking about physical Israel? Any chance at all? Remember your claim of total spiritual Israel when answering this question. You cannot pick and choose physical and spiritual when you wish and still attempt to stay credible even in your own mind. If one part of these verses in the context of Ezekiel 37:21-28 is physical Israel, then the entire context is then physical Israel!

V.23 Neither shall they defile themselves any more with their idols, nor with their detestable things, nor with any of their transgressions: but I will save them out of all their dwelling places, wherein they have sinned, and will cleanse them: so shall they be My people, and I will be their God.
In following the context of the prior verses, it becomes very clear to see that the subjects (they, their, and them) are the same physical Israel that are gathered "into 'their' own land" in verses 21 and 22. Therefore, is it too far of a stretch to conclude that the Hebrew prophet Ezekiel was prophesying that his people “physical Israel” (verse 18) that will be cleansed (as a people still under a forever-covenant) from their sins as a physical nation, while being in their own physical land and pleasing their God?

This would be a good place to stop and reflect, and to make sure that I haven’t missed some “spiritual-Israel” meaning here that the prophet Ezekiel was meaning to convey to whomever read his written words of this text? Nope, I don’t see anything yet, so let me continue.

V.24 And David my servant shall be king over them; and they all shall have one shepherd: they shall also walk in my judgments, and observe my statutes, and do them.
Since the subjects (them / they) haven’t changed in the context but continues from verses 21 and 22, I don’t think that I’m going out on a limb to say that David (referring to a physical Jew) will be over “physical” Israel. Also, in following the context from verse 21, we can see that the same ones who are gathered "into their 'own' land" will be "gathered" into their own land at the time of this Davidic messiah.

That's right, no prophecy being fulfilled during the Babylonial return here! Physical history, as well as New Testament scriptures show that there was no great in-gathering of physical Israel “from among the heathen” and "into their own land" during the time that Jesus was upon the earth (see St. John 7:35, Acts 24:5). Neither did physical Israel have a Davidic messiah to rule over them as a prince “forever” (see verse 25) when only 5% of the Babylonian exiles returned to the land, as you Replacement Theologists love to claim when cornered.

There certainly would not be such a thing called the “Babylonian Talmud” today if the majority of physical Israel would have returned according to greatness of this "return" promise that Ezekiel is conveying in this text. Therefore, call me a Zionist if you must, (and you must) but seemingly this verse leaves us with only one way to interpret its prophecy, by which one must say, "future physical tense"!

V.25 And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant, wherein your fathers have dwelt; and they shall dwell therein, even they, and their children, and their children's children for ever: and My servant David shall be their prince for ever.
Is the land that is being described in this verse, as the land that God gave Jacob (Israel) physical or spiritual? In other words, can one find this very land that God gave Jacob and that Ezekiel is referring to in this text on a physical (non-spiritual) map? Who is it that is being referred to in this verse when the prophet Ezekiel uses the word “your” as he uses the term “your fathers”?

Again, I want to make sure I’m not missing anything with a “spiritual-Israel-only” element here in regarding this holy prophecy. Ezekiel, being the Hebrew prophet that he was, wouldn’t he be directing his statement towards his own physical Hebrew people (in correlation with verse 18)? Again, this is a very simple Bible question. Is there any chance at all, and by any stretch of the imagination that Ezekiel might have been talking to the Palestinians and about their Palestinian fathers who have dwelt in the land, or maybe some spiritual believers in Jesus whose spiritual fathers dwelt in some spiritual land? Come on now, let's not avoid that question but answer it head-on and directly. Here's the question again Mr. Bible Answer Man:

Q. Is the anointed Hebrew prophet Ezekiel talking about future Arab-based so-called Palestinians or Spiritual Israel Gentile Christians when he writes he holy inspired script-text: "And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant, wherein your fathers have dwelt; and they shall dwell therein, even they, and their children, and their children's children for ever"?
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Let me ask it in the form of a multiple choice question just so we can be really clear on this. In staying with the flow of the context from verse 21, are the children from the ones who are gathered from among the heathen into their own physical land that God gave Jacob (v.25), of whom is Ezekiel most directing his statements towards in this prophecy text:
A. The future Gentile spiritual followers of Jesus.
B. The Palestinians (to whom the Quartet wants a state within the land mentioned).
C. The physical seed of Jacob and their physical generations.

The same question applies to the children’s children as well (meaning for all future generations of these gathered ones)? It should be plain to you Mr. Hanegraaff, that since the land that God gave Jacob, where the ancient Jewish “fathers dwelt” is undeniably very physical, and that no Christian doctrine has ever claimed that based upon this prophecy in Ezekiel, that all Christendom should be gathered from among the heathen into the physical land God gave to Jacob, nor has all of Christendom ever done so since the Christian era began. Furthermore, I don’t recall seeing any Palestinians in the movie “The Passion” did you? I wonder why not? Maybe the replacement-theology believing, anti-Semitic, Mel Gibson forgot to put them in his movie?

V.26 Moreover I will make a covenant of peace with them; it shall be an everlasting covenant with them: and I will place them, and multiply them, and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore.
Again, in following the context from verses 21 and 22, the “them” can only be physical Israel, who will be multiplied with a forever sanctuary in their midst. And since it’s a physical Israel who is gathered from the physical heathens into their own physical land, where their physical fathers dwelt, in the same physical land that God gave physical Jacob, where their physical children and physical children’s children will be forever, then there is no reason to think that there won’t be a physical sanctuary in their physical midst forever. Especially since there is a physical temple described in great detail by the same prophet Ezekiel (who served as a priest in the old physical temple) starting just three chapters later in chapters 40-48.

That’s right, as a Christian Mr. Henegraaff, you should be grateful that the physical temple that is promised to be among physical Israel in the near future will cause the Muslim shrine that is devoted to the terrorist-god Allah, and that bears the Koranic verse of sura 17:111 declaring “God has No Son” will have to go by-by! Doesn’t that make you put on a big Christian smile on your replacement-theology face?

V.27 My tabernacle also shall be with them: yea, I will be their God, and they shall be my people.
The phrase, “I will be their God, and they shall be my people” concerning the physical nation of Israel is repeated several times by the prophets Jeremiah, Ezekiel, and Zechariah (see Jer. 7:22,23, Jer. 11:4, Jer. 24:5-7, Jer. 30: 18-22, *Jer. 31:1,33,* Jer. 32:37,38, Ezk.11:20, Ezk. 14:11, Ezk. 36:28, Zech. 8:8) and their is absolutely no reason to think that the meaning of this phrase is any different in this prophecy of Ezekiel 37 than of all the times spoken.

One thing that all these scriptures containing this phrase have in common is the fact that the phrase is always used in the context of physical Israel returning to the physical land of their forefathers! The prophet Ezekiel while directing his message to an exiled nation, expresses this God-spoken phrase three times in chapter 37 alone and once in the prior chapter. From the whole of the Hebrew scriptures, there should be no need to explain to whom God continually throughout calls “His people”. Neither should there be any effort to spiritualize God’s word away from its original meaning by injecting some supposedly hidden-spiritual meaning into these holy words that are so clearly written “in your Gentile face” each time you read it!

V. 28 And the heathen shall know that I YHVH do sanctify Israel, when my sanctuary shall be in the midst of them for evermore.
Who is the “heathen” and who is the “Israel” and the “them” in this verse? If we follow the context from verses 21 and 22 all the way through to verse 28, it becomes quite easy to see that the “Israel” and the “them” are none other than physical Israel, the seed of Jacob to whom God gave the land to, as He gathers them from among the heathens "into their own land" "where their fathers had once dwelt", and where their children, and where their children‘s children will please and obey God under the prince Davidic messiah forever.

I don’t think I just said anything in the last sentence that might be considered injecting something into this prophecy that might be adding or taking something away from the original context and the intent of the prophet Ezekiel as he wrote down this holy scripture. Can you say that when reading this holy text of Ezekiel 37:21-28 Mr. Hanegraaff? Knowing that a word is a thought expressed, does your spiritual-Israel doctrine fit perfectly into the mindset of the prophet Ezekiel as he was expressing his thoughts from God in word form that we now see as this holy text?

In other words, If someone were to ask Ezekiel immediately after he finished writing this text about the concept of replacing physical Israel that he was apart of, with a spiritual (goyim populated) Israel, would he inform you that indeed that was the his main theme of why he wrote the inspired text, or would he curse you for being so spiritually and willfully stupid against God revealed plan for His chosen people?
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Continuing on, who is the “heathen” that is mentioned in this verse 28? Is this verse talking about you Mr. Henegraaff? Are you the Replacement-Theologist heathen along with others like you that will know at the time when this prophecy is being fulfilled that God does sanctify Israel (something you now deny, which is exactly what the verse implies that the heathen will do up until the time this promise is fulfilled)?

However, on the other hand, if you are the “spiritual Israel” that you claim you are, and this scripture reading from Ezekiel 37 is the new way to correctly read this text, and therefore I’m the non-believing heathen in this verse; then Ezekiel would have to had lied, because the prophecy stated that the heathen will know (meaning without any doubt whatsoever) that Israel (be it you or the Jewish people) is sanctified by their God.

All that I have to do is read this prophecy in its original context without any deviation, while knowing who wrote it, who it was written to, and the background as to why it was written, and I will have obtained enough of information and reason to doubt that God has sanctified you as spiritual Israel, (according to the very wording of the text) and by a simple reading of the text can verify that your “spiritual-Israel” and replacement-theology didn't come from the same God that inspire Ezekiel to write what he wrote and in the context that he wrote it in! How about that?
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However, if physical Israel, (the ones that have re-entered the land of Canaan after two thousand years, and have established Jerusalem as their sovereign capital, while being the only ones to do so since the time of King David) are in anyway connected to this Ezekiel prophecy, then you Mr. Answer Man, are in-line for a rude spiritual awakening that will cause you to have to give another type of an answer, an answer according to the scripture that assures that heathens like yourself will definitely know the truth about Israel and the God who sanctifies her.

Knowing your status as the heathen, it is no wonder why you side with the Hamas-electing (Nazi) Palestinians over the status of Jerusalem even while knowing that they are in indeed Hamas-electing religious-Nazis! Then you have the audacity to vilify the physical nation of Israel as you try and take from her, her personal prophecy in order to magnify your own man-made “spiritual” doctrine! I’ll end this letter with another "physical Israel" scripture that is very comparable to the Ezekiel 28:21-28 scripture, and which should be considered in light of this prophecy.

And what one nation in the earth is like thy people, even like Israel, whom God went to redeem for a people to himself, and to make him a name, and to do for you great things and terrible, for thy land, before thy people, which thou redeemedst to thee from Egypt, from the nations and their gods? For thou hast confirmed to thyself thy people Israel to be a people unto thee for ever: and thou, YHVH, art become their God. - II Samuel 7:23,24

Wishing you a pro-Israel / pro-Zionist day,
- Joe Whitehead

PS. I'm sorry, but I won't be donating to your ministry anytime in the near or distant future.